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(As Promised) Why Statistics Are Pseudoscience

Author
Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#21 - 2012-08-05 12:41:53 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
That's not an ADDITIONAL pot, it's just the house matching his bet.

...

Your gambler did not play in rounds 1 through 9.
Your gambler placed his first 100 bet on round 10. Money in pocket, original-100. He lost. Total loss 100 dollars.
Your gambler then placed a 200 bet on round 11. Money in pocket, original-300. He lost. Total loss 300 dollars.
Your gambler then placed a 300 bet on round 12. Money in pocket, original-600. He won 600. Total gains, ZERO DOLLARS.

Your gambler broke the martingale betting system rules in that third bet on round 12.
He should have bet 400, not 300. If he would, he would have walked away with 100, as opposed to breaking even.
Assuming he would have lost round 12 (total losses 700 dollars), he should have bet 800 dollars in round 13. If he wins, he walks off with 100.
If he loses round 13, his total losses are now 1500 and he bets 1600 in round 14. If he wins round 14, he walks off with 100.
If he loses round 14, his total losses are now 3100 and he bets 3200 in round 15. If he wins round 15, he walks off with 100.
And so on and so forth.

Notice how at absolutely no time the results of the first 9 throws he did not play in matter in any way, shape of form ? It could have been round 1 millionth and any possible combo of throws could have happened before and it would not have mattered.
Also, most importantly, it was completely irrelevant whether he believes it's more likely for the next throw to come up heads or tails. He wins 100 every time tails comes up, regardless of how many times heads come up, as long as he has enough money to keep doubling his bet and the house can match it.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#22 - 2012-08-05 12:48:49 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
So what does the gamblers fallacy mean to you Akita? Big smile




Because I think that it means that gamblers presume that after 10 heads in a row tails are bound to come up soon (tm).

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#23 - 2012-08-05 12:52:20 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Gambler's fallacy means that you think the very next throw is SIGNIFICANTLY MORE LIKELY THAN 50% to come up tails based on a recent streak of heads obtained with a fair coin by a non-cheating thrower.
Expecting a tails to come up EVENTUALLY with no expectation of exactly when it MUST hapen is not a fallacy, it's just common sense.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#24 - 2012-08-05 12:56:12 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Akita T wrote:
Gambler's fallacy means that you think the very next throw is SIGNIFICANTLY MORE LIKELY THAN 50% to come up tails based on a recent streak of heads obtained with a fair coin by a non-cheating thrower.
Expecting a tails to come up EVENTUALLY with no expectation of exactly when it MUST hapen is not a fallacy, it's just common sense.



In the next toss, or then next 2 or 3 tosses and yes it is common sense.
That is the point.


Thank you now we can move on although you did not explain how my example "had nothing to do with it". But I will let it go because I know how painful admitting that you are wrong can be for some people Blink

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Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#25 - 2012-08-05 13:00:58 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Quote:
Using YOUR logic, isolated streaks of 3 heads should happen far less than half of the time compared to streaks of 2 heads, and streaks of 4 heads should happen far less than half of the time compared to streaks of 3 heads, and so on and so forth, with every streak of X heads happening far less often than half of the numbers of streaks of X-1 heads.
In reality, you get ON AVERAGE and after a LONG SERIES OF TOSSES one independent streak of X heads for every 2 independent streaks of X-1 heads (including the first X-1 streak of ones inside the one of length X).



I guess I'll pick this one "at random"



The idea of applying relativity (the perspective of the observer) to a string is meant to be applied to the likelihood of an outcome repeating itself. Any outcome will do; be it 111111 or 1011 or 0000 it does not matter. It is a measure of the inverted odds of it coming up again after it has already occurred.


But you have to understand the perspective of the observer in order for it to make any sense. Static probability remains and other factors are plugged into the equation. I am not saying the static 50:50 changes. Never did I say that. I am saying that other factors are coming into play.





You do understand the principle of the observer don't you?

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#26 - 2012-08-05 13:03:41 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
Akita T wrote:
Gambler's fallacy means that you think the very next throw is SIGNIFICANTLY MORE LIKELY THAN 50% to come up tails based on a recent streak of heads obtained with a fair coin by a non-cheating thrower.
Expecting a tails to come up EVENTUALLY with no expectation of exactly when it MUST hapen is not a fallacy, it's just common sense.
In the next toss, or then next 2 or 3 tosses and yes it is common sense. That is the point.
Thank you now we can move on although you did not explain how my example "had nothing to do with it". But I will let it go because I know how painful admitting that you are wrong can be for some people Blink


The point is that "gambler's fallacy" was NOT relevant in ANY way in your example.

Those first 9 heads tosses did NOT make the 10th toss more likely to come up tails, it was a 50:50 shot.
The 10th head did not make the 11th toss more likely to come up tails, it was still a 50:50 shot.
And so on and so forth.

Your gambler did NOT rely on the assumption that any of the subsequent tosses would be more likely to be tails rather than heads.
THAT would have been gambler's fallacy.

Instead, your gambler relied only on the fact that he expects a tail to come up EVENTUALLY, and used his bets to hedge against the very good chance of losing many subsequent bets.
That's the martingale betting system. And it does not rely on the chances of a toss becoming different from 50:50.
In fact, it relies on the precise fact that the chances REMAIN 50:50 regardless of past tosses. That's the exact opposite of gambler's fallacy.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#27 - 2012-08-05 13:05:48 UTC
Akita T wrote:
The point is that "gambler's fallacy" was NOT relevant in ANY way in your example.

Those first 9 heads tosses did NOT make the 10th toss more likely to come up tails, it was a 50:50 shot.
The 10th head did not make the 11th toss more likely to come up tails, it was still a 50:50 shot.
And so on and so forth.

Your gambler did NOT rely on the assumption that any of the subsequent tosses would be more likely to be tails rather than heads.
THAT would have been gambler's fallacy.

Your gambler relied only on the fact that he expects a tail to come up EVENTUALLY, and used his bets to hedge against the very good chance of losing many subsequent bets.
That's the margingale betting system. And it does not rely on the chances of a toss becoming different from 50:50, in fact, it relies on the precise fact that the chances REMAIN 50:50 regardless of past tosses.
That's the exact opposite of gambler's fallacy.


Well that's bullshit because he saw 11 heads in a row and assumed that tails would come next. Or would come after that. That is the very essence of the fallacy. Roll


Wow.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#28 - 2012-08-05 13:09:01 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
And how exactly would any of that have changed what he won ?

You don't need to wait to see a string of heads or tails to use that exact system to always win.
It's actually completely irrelevant whether the previous 20 tosses would have all been heads or all been tails.
He ALWAYS ends up with a gain of 100 whenever a tails comes up, REGARDLESS of how many heads get thrown up beforehand.
In fact, it even works if you're working with biased coins that come up heads more often than tails !!!

All you need is enough money to be able to keep doubling your bets and a house that will match those bets fully.
Casinos have limits to the bets precisely because of this, to combat the martingale betting system being used by people with huge bankrolls.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#29 - 2012-08-05 13:15:20 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Akita T wrote:
And how exactly would any of that have changed what he won ?

You don't need to wait to see a string of heads or tails to use that exact system to always win.
He ALWAYS ends up with a gain of 100 whenever a tails comes up, REGARDLESS of how many heads get thrown up beforehand.
In fact, it even works if you're working with biased coins that come up heads more often than tails !!!

All you need is enough money to be able to keep doubling your bets and a house that will match those bets fully.
Casinos have limits to the bets precisely because of this, to combat the martingale betting system being used by people with huge bankrolls.



It is a super simplified word problem and it was submitted that way for a simple enough reason (that was explained clearly). That is all.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#30 - 2012-08-05 13:25:04 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Except that you have failed to demonstrate anything.

The martingale betting system and the gambler's fallacy are completely separate from each-other.
You don't need to be a delusional sufferer of the gambler's fallacy to employ the martingale betting system to win.
And even if you know that the gambler's fallacy is wrong, you can still use the martingale betting system to win - in fact, you will win money faster because you won't have to wait for streaks to occur to start making bets.
Edit: of course, you can't use it in real life to actually win in either case because you don't have an infinite amount of money nor do casinos allow you unlimited bets, so you will eventually lose all you can invest on an unlucky streak.

Now try to make money using ONLY the gambler's fallacy - you are allowed to only place fixed amount bets.
Do you think your chances are better than even to gain money rather than lose if you only bet against streaks ?
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#31 - 2012-08-05 13:31:26 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Akita T wrote:

Now try to make money using ONLY the gambler's fallacy - you are allowed to only place fixed amount bets.
Do you think your chances are better than even to gain money rather than lose if you only bet against streaks ?


If I bet against patterns repeating themselves after a certain length of time then will make more money. In fact I will make allot of money. I cannot however presume to make money using this principle for tiny groupings such as 110 or 100101001 because of the law of averages.

I am talking about two separate things.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#32 - 2012-08-05 13:37:24 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
http://books.google.ro/books?id=QEnjzV0rTvwC&pg=PR4&lpg=PR4&dq=978-0-618-62011-1&source=bl&ots=3pSUf9fzNY&sig=L0o2hPWU3QfoXrWSqFZWLe5OT7Y&hl=en&sa=X&ei=tXUeUJq9CYySswasnIGQCQ&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=monte%20carlo&f=false
==
http://tinyurl.com/c758dqa

Quote:
This misconception is known as the gambler's fallacy. It occurs when people assume that an event is more or less likely to occur based on whether or not that event has recently occurred. As a result, people are surprised when a shuffled song repeats or when a flipped coin exhibits extended streaks of heads or tails. The most famous example of such a phenomenon occurred in a Monte Carlo casino in the summer of 1913 when a roulette wheel landed on black twenty-six times in a row. During that staggeringly improbable run, most gamblers bet against black, since they felt that the red must be "due." In other words, they assumed that the randomness of the roulette wheel would somehow correct the imbalance and cause the wheel to land on red. The casino ended up making millions of francs.


Note that a roulette wheel is less than 50% likely to land on either red or black. French roulette has a single "house auto-wins" field out of 37 (a green 0), whereas USA has two (a green 0 and a green 00) out of 38.
A non-USA roulette has a 48.64(8648)% chance of landing on either red or black.

The chance to get 26 black in a row would be roughly 1:136,823,184.
That's roughly similar to the chance of a perfect coin to flip 27 heads in a row (1:134,217,728).

Let me repeat that...

The casino ended up making millions of francs.
One 1913 franc was worth roughly three 2007 euros.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#33 - 2012-08-05 13:49:09 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
26 is well within the threshold or predictability, be it at the higher end.

You say that the probability is 1:136,823,184 roughly?




Well how about this

How many millions of spins on countless roulette tables have occurred in history? Far more then 136M that is for sure. Apparently it happened ONCE (let me repeat that.... ONCE in recorded historyBlink) not every 136,823,184 spins yea?





Thus: the calculation that you are using is incomplete else we would see this happen more often then it does.


P.S.
THX! you have brought up an exellent point in support of my theory. I will defiantly use this in the future. What would I do without you Akita?

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#34 - 2012-08-05 14:28:13 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
That's just the most famous early case happening in THE SINGLE MOST FAMOUS CASINO IN THE WORLD with a wheel that was above suspicion of tampering where people made significant bets against the streak and the casino won big time.
It's not necessarily the longest streak ever recorded, and casinos should be reluctant to publicize such results out of their own volition due to fears of accusations of tampering, so you have to rely on data from just the people present there.

Streaks of 16 or higher of a colour on american-style roulettes (~47.3684 base chance, roughly 1:155660 for streak of 16 red/black) happen all the time and are witnessed by many people constantly.
Streaks of 20 to 25 happen less often in large casinos, but it's not unheard of at all, with employees occasionally talking about this or that table having spun that many reds or blacks in a row in the not so far past.

Roulette happens at a much slower pace, you could have as little as 40 spins per hour, with not many tables averaging over 50 spins per hour. And it's not open to the public 24/7 like other regular casino attractions, because the wheel is usually recalibrated and separators exchanged on a daily basis to avoid consistent biases which could give long-time observers any advantages.
Roulette is also far less popular than many other casino games (especially in the USA with their double green fields, very few casinos in the USA have european-sytle roulettes, and when they do, it's usually reserved for high-rollers only, with much higher minimum bids) and as such, the number of tables is not very high per casino to begin with.
For instance, Caesar's Palace in Las Vegas (one of the most famous and largest casinos in the world) is one of the very few Vegas casinos that offers european-style roulettes, and they only have 18 roulette tables total today.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#35 - 2012-08-05 15:04:50 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
There are reasons for all of those things but this is getting far to complex and is why I will now stick solely to coins. If you cannot grasp the simplest aspects of an idea, there is no hope for the ones that have greater complexity.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#36 - 2012-08-05 15:08:25 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
There are reasons for all of those things but this is getting far to complex and is why I will now stick solely to coins. If you cannot grasp the simplest aspects of an idea, there is no hope for the ones that have greater complexity.

Right back at you - what's so complicated to comprehend that believing the next coin will be more or less likely to end up heads or tails has nothing to do with making money when employing the martingale betting system ?
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#37 - 2012-08-05 15:15:03 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Metaphor and simplified representation seem to be lost on you completely. It is a strange thing to observe in real time to be frank.



What the op is talking about is additional variables to be plugged into static probability. One of them is general relativity. Now do you wish to discuss this with a more open mind or do you want to be a parrot? You sir are missing the bigger picture and you are putting your faith in something that you read out of a book instead of what you see in the world around you. I am only interested in discussing observable reality.





What always interests me is how debates function. I acknowledge and accept that 1. The coin has no memory and 2. That the outcome of either heads or tails are equally as likely. I have stated that I acknowledge this fact and it’s name is static probability.

I however have submitted additional hypothesis that are meant to be taken in conjunction with static probability and I have given them names. I wish to debate these additional ideas and yet all that happens is a repetition of how I don’t acknowledge the existence of the 50:50 nature of an unbiased coin.

It is acknowledged.





But there is a bit more to the story. That is what I wish to discuss, even if you disagree that is the topic at hand.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#38 - 2012-08-05 15:22:44 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Look, here's a simple one.
http://www.random.org/cgi-bin/randbyte?nbytes=16384&format=b
That's 2^16=16384 random bits right there.

ON AVERAGE when loading of that page a good number of times, I expect to see very roughly one streak of 10 ones, three streaks of 9 ones, eight streaks of 8 ones, eighteen streaks of 7 ones, fourty-two streaks of 6 ones.
I also expect to see a streak of 11 ones every other page load, a streak of 12 ones every three loads or so, and a streak of 13 ones every seven loads or thereabouts.

How many do you think I'll actually get if not roughly that many ?


Eternum Praetorian wrote:
I acknowledge and accept that
1. The coin has no memory and
2. That the outcome of either heads or tails are equally as likely.
I have stated that I acknowledge this fact and it’s name is static probability.

You did ? Weird. Because up until now it seemed like you totally DIDN'T.
Let's say that you did and it was all just a huge multi-page misunderstanding.

Quote:
I however have submitted additional hypothesis that are meant to be taken in conjunction with static probability and I have given them names. I wish to debate these additional ideas

You need to be more clear about what those "additional hypotheses" might be.
Start off with how they are even necessary in the first place - as in, WHICH PARTS of statistics are "incomplete" and need additional details to paint the "whole picture".
Then immediately follow with a concise explanation of what those hypotheses are, what predictions do they make, and how we could test them.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#39 - 2012-08-05 15:30:43 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
And what does that have to do with the notion of general relativity being taken into consideration verses statistical theory?


Quote:
You need to be more clear about what those "additional hypotheses" might be.
Start off with how they are even necessary in the first place - as in, WHICH PARTS of statistics are "incomplete" and need additional details to paint the "whole picture".
Then immediately follow with a concise explanation of what those hypotheses are, what predictions do they make, and how we could test them.


Why repost and pyramid quote when you can just go back and read a little better? Big smile

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#40 - 2012-08-05 15:32:50 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
And what does that have to do with the notion of general relativity being taken into consideration verses statistical theory?

So tell me what general relativity has any business in being injected into statistical theory, and how is that supposed to happen.
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
Why repost and pyramid quote when you can just go back and read a little better? Big smile

Because all I can see so far in your past posts are vague pseudoscientifical concepts of questionable practical utility even if they would be actually true.
Care to be a bit more specific and pile on the PRACTICAL / TESTABLE aspects of your hypotheses ?