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(As Promised) Why Statistics Are Pseudoscience

Author
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#101 - 2012-08-07 03:56:39 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
I see that your "CSM rising thread" has got 4 whole likes. How is that working out for you Lol


The biggest fallacy of all is that the CSM's do **** all for eve. You will blend in nicely as you get drunk and puke into your wizards hat on stage along with the rest. Fear not my friend for your dynamic and pleasant personality combined with your eloquent understanding of mathematical will light the way!

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#102 - 2012-08-07 03:57:35 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
Xenuria wrote:
There is no static 50/50, by function of logic its not even a coin you are talking about its a 2 dimensional circular plane.


He's talking about the concept of a perfectly fair coin being tossed by an unbiased thrower, almost exactly equally likely to end up heads or tails, and having all results of the type "landed on the side" or "lost somewhere" cropped out.
If you prefer, imagine instead a hypothetical perfectly random bit generator (equally likely to generate a 1 or a 0 on any interrogation), and call every 1 "heads" and every 0 "tails".
Because in the end, that's what we've been doing anyway.

That's not the problem in his logic anyway (at least not as long as he doesn't mention how actual randomness can't exist or anything like that).
It's the other conclusions he occasionally proclaims that are actually problematic.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#103 - 2012-08-07 04:00:38 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
That and there is no reason to think that a bias coin is bias in 1 direction 100% of the time. Everything from what will be the temperature, dew point, wind speed, gravitational field, how much spin, how high, how far, for what surface hardness, what position of the sun and orientation of the Earth's magnetic fi eld, and on and on to an in finite list of exact circumstances, none of them having any particular claim to being the right reference set over any other.

In theory every time the coin hits the ground the balance shifts.



In this example the "unbiased" coin can act exactly as random as the bias one and the net result is the same.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#104 - 2012-08-07 04:04:28 UTC  |  Edited by: Akita T
All that is irrelevant.
The only relevant thing is that you CAN get ANY finite sized streak of heads or tails as long as you just keep on making throws as long as you like, even until after the universe would have normally ended if you pick a ridiculously high streak length.
:P

30 heads ? Sure, can be done by an actual person in a lifetime.
40 heads ? Can be done by a planetary population in a lifetime.
50 heads ? Can be done by a supercomputer simulating throws for a few years.
60 heads ? Can be done by all computers in the world simulating throws for a few years.
70 heads ? Can be done by all computers in the world in a few generations.
100 heads ? Can be done probably before humanity ends if we manage to get nifty enough computers.
1000 heads ? You might manage to do it before the universe ends if whatever exists wants to keep on trying.
100000 heads ? You could do that if you could have access to a few universes that do nothing else but simulate it.
1 billion billion billion heads ? MORE UNIVERSES PLEASE and it's done.
and so on and so forth

As long as it's NOT IMPOSSIBLE to throw heads in any given throw for some reason, there's always a chance to throw it, so you can always make a streak that's 1 longer, it just takes longer and longer until you actually get it for each additional 1 to the length.
Unless you claim that after a certain heads streak length the coin all of a sudden has to flip tails with no chance to flip heads, that's the inescapable conclusion.
And you already admitted that you don't deny any individual flip remains at 50:50 chance.
So there you go. End of story.
Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#105 - 2012-08-07 12:44:34 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Akita T wrote:
All that is irrelevant.
The only relevant thing is that you CAN get ANY finite sized streak of heads or tails as long as you just keep on making throws as long as you like, even until after the universe would have normally ended if you pick a ridiculously high streak length.
:P.


Yes I believe I stated that bias and unbiased would be the same.


Now on the other hand, you have delivered math that supports the idea of "normal sized streaks" ending in a persons own lifetime (a majority of the time).

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Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#106 - 2012-08-07 13:24:26 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
A Question for Akita the math wiz. I am trying to figure out how you calculated the part where you said there is a 3:256 chance of flipping 7 heads in a row in 8 flips.



If:
The odds of flipping 7 heads in a row is 2^7
and the odds of flipping 20 heads in a row is 2^20


Then:

(2^7) / (2^20) = (1:128) / (1:1,048,576) ?

Thus the odds of flipping a 7 heads streak in 20 flips is 8,192 / 1,048,576 ??

Thus the answer ends up being .00781?


Is that even close to right? Idea

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Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#107 - 2012-08-07 14:00:22 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
Ok 10 pages in and I finally was able to convey my idea with some clarity. This arguing is helping me sort some ideas out so I thank everyone who is participating in calling me a fool



So this is the idea of "relative to the observer". I just forgot to add the term "in a person’s own lifetime" which is also relative to the observer.




Then let us consider the gamblers fallacy again.


"Suppose that we have just tossed 11 heads in a row, so that if the next coin toss were also to come up heads, it would complete a run of 12 successive heads. Since the probability of a run of 12 successive heads is only 1/4096 (one in four thousand and ninety-six), a believer in the gambler's fallacy might believe that this next flip is less likely to be heads than to be tails. This is statistically untrue because each flip is static at 50:50 and this is the gamblers fallacy.



But Take Into Account 1. The Relative Perspective Of The Observer & 2. A Person’s Lifetime


Including these two variables does NOT change the static 50:50 likelihood of the coin toss. But it does create a kind of (although imaginary) mean in which to regress towards. 1. A lifetime and 2. The perspective of the observer over the course of that lifetime. This limit’s the realistic sample size.

If you were to flip a coin every three seconds for 100 years you can do it about 3.1 billion times. The odds of flipping 30 heads in a row is roughly 1:2,400,000,000 followed by the odds of flipping 31 heads in a row at 1: 4,200,000,000.

So the gambler can expect to (reasonably) see a streak of 25-30 heads in a row, maximum, in his natural lifetime. 1. If he flips enough coins and 2. If he is lucky.


This is why the gambler’s fallacy is not COMPLETELY (as in 100%) incorrect. And this is the idea of consecutive probability. It is based on the relative perspective of the observer and the expected lifetime of the observer verses the nature of true randomness. The static 50:50 nature of each coin toss never changes. See? Big smile






Edit: New Definitions For My Original Ideas

Static Probability: the overall variables involved

Consecutive Probability: the sample size relative to the observer & proportional to time

Theoretical probability: every possible combination independent of time or sample sizes.

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FloppieTheBanjoClown
Arcana Imperii Ltd.
#108 - 2012-08-07 15:04:32 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
FloppieTheBanjoClown wrote:
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
FloppieTheBanjoClown wrote:
The OP claims that the odds of a coin toss are determined by previous coin tosses..


No but I see how you could come to that conclusion.

Yeah. Because you said it.


No you just failed to read it correctly. But that is ok. I mean if anything I failed to properly explain my case and I admit to impropper word usage with regards to my debate with Akita. But I defiantly did not say that the odds of any given coin toss is determined by the previous one.


From your OP:

Eternum Praetorian wrote:
long streaks result in a diminished probability of continuation per unit of time.


long streaks RESULT in a diminished probability of continuation. That means that the longer your streak, the lower the probability of it continuing. The ONLY way that can occurs is by modifying the odds of the individual coin toss. Thus, every coin toss would be influenced by previous coin tosses.

As you completely ignored the examples I gave around this, I'm going to assume you had nothing to refute my points.

Founding member of the Belligerent Undesirables movement.

Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#109 - 2012-08-07 15:18:00 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
I admitted to akita my incorrect usage of wording.




Quote:

This is why the gambler’s fallacy is not COMPLETELY (as in 100%) incorrect. And this is the idea of consecutive probability. It is based in the relative perspective of the observer and the expected lifetime of the observer verses the nature of true randomness.



Question:

"Let's say you walk into a casino. What is the set which is regressing towards a mean? Your experiences? The results of the people at the machine you sat down at? The row of slot machines? That particular casino? All the slot machines in the world?"




Answer:

The answer is that there that there has not been enough coins tossed in the time frame of the entire universe to REASONABLY expect 1,000 heads in a row to come up in the short time that I will be there. It does not matter what the other people in the casino before me has experienced. This is the concept of "relative to the observer"

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FloppieTheBanjoClown
Arcana Imperii Ltd.
#110 - 2012-08-07 15:18:58 UTC
You want to know something that throws all the statistics we've bantered about right out the window and makes these streaks far more likely than you think? We've been working on the basis of sets. For example, suppose we're trying to find a string of four 1s. The math suggests that we have 2*2*2*2 possible combinations, and so our odds of finding four consecutive 1s would be 1:16. That is obvious when you type out all the possible combinations:

0000
0001
0010
0011
0100
0101
0110
0111
1000
1001
1010
1011
1100
1101
1110
1111

However, when you remove the breaks and treat it as a single large set, you get:

0000000100100011010001010110011110001001101010111100110111101111

You find four instances of "1111" in the sequence. Yes that is a non-random sequence, so here's a random one I just generated:

0001000111011110000101110001111001011100110011011000101001001010

There are two sets of "1111" in that. However if you group it into sets of 4, the sequence never occurs. "0001" occurs four times, though. The point is, even the statistical predictions we have relied on in these threads are very conservative.

You talk about our brains perceiving things which statistics and mathematics might not. Our brains also see Jesus on a piece of toast. We're evolved to look for patterns to the point that we see them even where they don't exist. We assign significance to certain things because they *appear* orderly, even when they don't. 01010101 is not a significant sequence of coin flips, it's just one of 256 possible outcomes. It's your own mind that tricks you into thinking it's significant because it stands out above 011000111 and 10010011.

Founding member of the Belligerent Undesirables movement.

Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#111 - 2012-08-07 15:19:53 UTC
See above edit.
I do not dispute your findings.

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FloppieTheBanjoClown
Arcana Imperii Ltd.
#112 - 2012-08-07 15:25:11 UTC  |  Edited by: FloppieTheBanjoClown
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
The answer is that there that there has not been enough coins tossed in the time frame of the entire universe to REASONABLY expect 1,000 heads in a row to come up in the short time that I will be there. It does not matter what the other people in the casino before me has experienced. This is the concept of "relative to the observer"

When you reframe the argument to a single person's lifetime, of course the odds are so strongly against 1,000 consecutive heads. However, if you've just watched 999 heads flipped, the odds of the next toss making 1,000 are *still* 50:50. Nothing is going to change the odds of that individual coin toss.

This whole thing started because you seemed to be asserting that the odds of a single coin toss changed based on previous coin tosses, making it increasingly unlike that a streak would continue. That's simply not the case. The problem is that the longer your streak the more rare it becomes, and only one out of every two will get longer. So if you ever do get 100 heads in a row and then get tails, you're going to have to basically start all over trying to get that 100 again and see if you flip heads at 101. However long it takes to get a particular streak, double that number for the next highest. That's what we've been trying to convey to you from the start of this whole mess.

It seems you're backing off that stance now and framing the argument in such a way as to state "well, we'll never see it." Which is of course almost certainly true, as the odds of any given combination of such length are so tiny that it doesn't matter what sequence of 1,000 random bits you choose, you've probably never seen it.

Founding member of the Belligerent Undesirables movement.

Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#113 - 2012-08-07 15:32:35 UTC
Thus: it is not reasonable to presume the likelihood of 1,000 heads in a row when you enter into a casino. We can do this for any number of heads until the value becomes REASONABLE and as a result we start to see them more often.


The static 50:50 ration never changes.
This is about the perspective of the observer (aka relativity tied into statistical theory)


What is the average value of reasonableness? I am not sure yet but I would be happy to calculate it together.

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Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#114 - 2012-08-07 15:42:15 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
I am trying to figure out how you calculated the part where you said there is a 3:256 chance of flipping 7 heads in a row in 8 flips.

8 flips means 2^8 = 256 total possible combinations
There are exactly three possible combinations of 8 flips which contain at least 7 heads in a row : 7h+t, t+7h, 8h.
So, odds of 7 heads or more in 8 flips is 3:256 = 1.171875%

Quote:
The odds of flipping 7 heads in a row is 2^7 and the odds of flipping 20 heads in a row is 2^20
Then: (2^7) / (2^20) = (1:128) / (1:1,048,576) ?
Thus the odds of flipping a 7 heads streak in 20 flips is 8,192 / 1,048,576 ??
Thus the answer ends up being .00781?
Is that even close to right? Idea

Nope, not even close to right.

You'd need to count ALL possible combinations of length 20 which contain at least 7 heads and divide by 2^20 to get the exact answer.
This is quite painful to calculate with exact precision.

For instance, there's:

* 2^13 combinations that start with 7 heads, (8192, those you did take into account)

* 2^12 combinations that start with t+7h, (4096 more)

* 2^11 combinations that start with h+t+7h (2048 more,
* 2^11 combinations that start with t+t+7h (2048 more)
= 4096 more in this group

* 2^10 combinations that start with t+t+t+7h (1024 more)
* 2^10 combinations that start with t+h+t+7h (1024 more)
* 2^10 combinations that start with h+t+t+7h (1024 more)
* 2^10 combinations that start with h+h+t+7h (1024 more)
= 4096 more in this group

* 8 sets of 2^9 combinations that start with 3anything+t+7h (8*512=4096 more in this group)

* 16 sets of 2^8 combinations that start with 4anything+t+7h (16*256=4096 more in this group)

* 32 sets of 2^7 combinations that start with 5anything+t+7h (32*128=4096 more in this group)

* 64 sets of 2^6 combinations that start with 6anything+t+7h (64*64=4096 more in this group)

* 128-1=127 sets of 2^5 combinations that start with 7anything+t+7h ; 128-1 because we needed to exclude 7anything=7h because it would be a duplicate of one of the combinations listed first, but all the rest are ok (127*32=4064 more in this group)

...and this is where it starts to get complicated because more and more possible sets would be duplicates of previous sets, so let's ignore everything from that point onwards for now and say everything might be a duplicate.

That would be so far at least 8192 + 4096 * 7 + 4064 = 40928 sets out of 2^20 that have at least 7 heads in a row.
40928/1048576 = 0.039031982421875, so there's at least a 3.9% chance to roll 7 heads in a row out of 20 flips.
FloppieTheBanjoClown
Arcana Imperii Ltd.
#115 - 2012-08-07 15:45:12 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
Thus: it is not reasonable to presume the likelihood of 1,000 heads in a row when you enter into a casino. We can do this for any number of heads until the value becomes REASONABLE and as a result we start to see them more often.

The static 50:50 ration never changes.
This is about the perspective of the observer (aka relativity tied into statistical theory)

What is the average value of reasonableness? I am not sure yet but I would be happy to calculate it together.


Relativity doesn't even enter into it. You're misusing a scientific term there.

Betting on a particular sequence of 1,000 random anything is fool-hardy. But that doesn't mean that the gambler's fallacy has any merit: if you watch 999 coin tosses land on heads, you are STILL betting solely on the next coin toss when you put your money down. If you've watched just nine consecutive heads, betting on tails is no more likely to win than heads. Intuition might tell you that it's unlikely to continue that streak, but your intuition would be wrong.

Let's take this away from the coin toss for a moment. Suppose you're betting on a single dice throw. Random number from 1 to 6. The most recent throws include three each of 1-5 and only one 6. Some people would intuit that it is more likely to toss a 6 because in the long run, randomness will balance it out. But the truth is, you can't predict the individual throw based on past throws, and any previous throws are irrelevant to the outcome of the current one.

Founding member of the Belligerent Undesirables movement.

Eternum Praetorian
Doomheim
#116 - 2012-08-07 15:48:09 UTC  |  Edited by: Eternum Praetorian
The total sum of throws will balance out over long periods of time, but in no such order as to benefit the gambler. Now imagine if you rolled five 1’s in a row. Now estimate how long it will take until you stop throwing 1’s within reason during the time allowed.

Relativity can be applied to anything involving an observer by the way.

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stoicfaux
#117 - 2012-08-07 15:56:46 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
But Take Into Account 1. The Relative Perspective Of The Observer & 2. A Person’s Lifetime[/b][/u]

Including these two variables does NOT change the static 50:50 likelihood of the coin toss. But it does create a kind of (although imaginary) mean in which to regress towards. 1. A lifetime and 2. The perspective of the observer over the course of that lifetime. This limit’s the realistic sample size.

If you were to flip a coin every three seconds for 100 years you can do it about 3.1 billion times. The odds of flipping 30 heads in a row is roughly 1:2,400,000,000 followed by the odds of flipping 31 heads in a row at 1: 4,200,000,000.

So the gambler can expect to (reasonably) see a streak of 25-30 heads in a row, maximum, in his natural lifetime. 1. If he flips enough coins and 2. If he is lucky.


This is why the gambler’s fallacy is not COMPLETELY (as in 100%) incorrect. And this is the idea of consecutive probability. It is based on the relative perspective of the observer and the expected lifetime of the observer verses the nature of true randomness. The static 50:50 nature of each coin toss never changes. See? Big smile


Except that... every other combination of thirty coin flips has the exact same odds as flipping all heads. For example all tails (111...), all heads (000..), alternating heads and tails (e.g. 1010101010...), or this combo (0100011101010101011100001) have a 1:2,400,000,000 chance of occurring.

Therefore by your 'Relative Perspective/Lifetime' theory, after 30 coin flips, the 31st coin flip is unlikely be either heads or tails.



Pon Farr Memorial: once every 7 years, all the carebears in high-sec must PvP or they will be temp-banned.

FloppieTheBanjoClown
Arcana Imperii Ltd.
#118 - 2012-08-07 15:57:35 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
The total sum of throws will balance out over long periods of time, but in no such order as to benefit the gambler. Now imagine if you rolled five 1’s in a row. Now estimate how long it will take until you stop throwing 1’s within reason during the time allowed.


The odds are in favor of my very next roll breaking the streak. However, it's entirely possible (and I've personally seen it happen) for that streak of 5 to turn into 10 before it breaks. That's the thing...with a fair toss, the outcome of an individual selection can't be predicted. In this instance it's "reasonable" to expect that streak to break every time you roll, but the odds of rolling 111111 are exactly the same as rolling 123456 or any other combination. I simply happened on that one that stands out the most.

Eternum Praetorian wrote:
Relativity can be applied to anything involving an observer by the way.


Actually, relativity is quite specific in scope. It demonstrates that time and space are perceived differently by observers travelling at different velocities. It has nothing to do with probability.

Founding member of the Belligerent Undesirables movement.

Akita T
Caldari Navy Volunteer Task Force
#119 - 2012-08-07 16:00:11 UTC
Eternum Praetorian wrote:
The total sum of throws will balance out over long periods of time

The PERCENTAGE of throws will TEND to get closer to 50%.
That does NOT mean that the number of tails will get closer to the number of heads.
In fact, the total number of heads has an equal chance to get closer or farther from each-other with each throw.
The absolute difference between heads and tails could get as high or as low as luck will make it go.
It's only the PERCENTAGES that usually get closer in spite of luck or lack thereof.

Concrete example, a pretty extreme one (very unlikely to actually happen in reality), just for illustration's sake.
Let's say after 2000 throws, we have 1100 tails and 900 heads, a 55:45 split.
After 4000 throws, we have 2150 tails and 1850 heads, a 53.75:46.25 split.
The percentages DID get closer to 50:50, however the absolute difference got LARGER, from 200 to 300.
stoicfaux
#120 - 2012-08-07 16:14:34 UTC
FloppieTheBanjoClown wrote:
The odds are in favor of my very next roll breaking the streak. However, it's entirely possible (and I've personally seen it happen) for that streak of 5 to turn into 10 before it breaks. That's the thing...with a fair toss, the outcome of an individual selection can't be predicted. In this instance it's "reasonable" to expect that streak to break every time you roll, but the odds of rolling 111111 are exactly the same as rolling 123456 or any other combination. I simply happened on that one that stands out the most.

Eternum Praetorian wrote:
Relativity can be applied to anything involving an observer by the way.


Actually, relativity is quite specific in scope. It demonstrates that time and space are perceived differently by observers travelling at different velocities. It has nothing to do with probability.


To emphasize Floppie's point, "streaks" do NOT actually exist. A streak is just a sequence that looks special to the observer (i.e. all heads, all tails, alternating heads/tails, etc..) Mathematically, every sequence of numbers is a streak. If everything is a streak, then nothing is a streak.

analogy: By implying that a streak must be broken, you're guilty of anthropomorphizing a sequence of numbers.

Pon Farr Memorial: once every 7 years, all the carebears in high-sec must PvP or they will be temp-banned.