These forums have been archived and are now read-only.

The new forums are live and can be found at https://forums.eveonline.com/

Out of Pod Experience

 
  • Topic is locked indefinitely.
 

I'm a Particle Astrophysicist, ask me anything

Author
Whitehound
#441 - 2012-04-10 15:54:26 UTC  |  Edited by: Whitehound
Tsadkiel wrote:
and, AGAIN, this calculation has nothing to do with Legrange points... your second statement concerning objects of unequal mass not possessing an L1 point is just flat out wrong by counter example. the earth-sun system possesses an L1 point. we've BEEN there (with probes)...

Yes, it does. The Lagrange point is where the gravitational force turns around. And yes, Sun and Earth do posses an L1 point.

I wrote they (two objects of different mass) can have no L1 point. Not they never can have one. Are you really this bad at reading?!

I am starting to think that you are no more than a kid who tries to be clever by using Google and pretends to be a scientist in the off-topic section of a game forum.

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#442 - 2012-04-10 16:00:28 UTC  |  Edited by: Tsadkiel
Mathis Athins wrote:
This one has always irked me: Why is the speed of light the fastest anything in the universe can travel? I just can't wrap my head around the idea that there is a limit to the maximum velocity of any and all objects and that it happens to be the specific speed that light travels.


well, the speed of light is unique in that it is a property only of the medium in which the light travels (i posted about this earlier in the thread. still looking for it). this means that no matter how fast you go, if you are in a vacuum, light will move at a speed INDEPENDENT of your velocity. this is very unlike what you expect from common sense. if you move at 1 m/s, and throw a ball ahead of you at 2 m/s, YOU see the ball move at 2 m/s and a stationary observer sees it move at 3 m/s. but if you do this with light (say you move and turn on a flashlight), and if you are in a vacuum, you and a stationary observer will both AGREE that the light is moving at c, because its velocity only depends on the properties of the medium.

this is why the speed of light in a vacuum is a speed "limit". no matter how fast you go in a vacuum, light will always ALWAYS be faster.
Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#443 - 2012-04-10 16:22:25 UTC
Jeyson Vicious wrote:
I spent a good few hours the other weekend Googling how strong the power of freezing water is (I once heard it was an unstoppable force!). Did you ever see anything cool or amazing in school or a lab in that regard?

I tried to break a plastic water bottle in the freezer. It bloated quite a bit, but didn't bust.


yes actually! water has many interesting properties and the two most important for the effects i think you are referring to is the fact that it is an incompressible fluid and that it expands when it freezes. a good example of the former is something that some friends of mine and i did as undergrads. we decided to try and shatter a Nalgene bottle! after several attempts, all of which failed, we eventually succeeded by filling the bottle completely with water (as little air inside as possible) and dropping off an eleven story building XD the bottle deformed when it hit the ground, but the water inside was incompressible, so its volume stayed approximately constant. the resulting pressure differential shattered the bottle :3 freezing water is a major erosive force on the earth because it expands (a property observed in only a select few materials)! again, because the fluid is incompressible we might have been able to break the bottle filled with water by freezing it as well!

there may be a number of reasons why your experiment failed. the most likely may be the presence of air in the bottle. unlike water, air is extremely compressible and if it is present in the bottle, then it will simply compress as the water freezes. the second reason may be the type of bottle used. many plastic bottles are designed with their ductility in mind, and your bottle may have simply stretched under the expanding force of the water.

hope this helps!
Whitehound
#444 - 2012-04-10 16:34:18 UTC  |  Edited by: Whitehound
Tsadkiel wrote:
well, the speed of light has the unique property of being a property...

Boring!

We only do not know if it is possible to travel faster than light. We only know it is impossible with our current understanding.

To travel faster than light means that we need a propulsion system that pushes us forward faster than the speed of light. Because we do not know of anything being faster than light and having a mass to push away from will we never be able to travel faster than light with the help of conventional propulsion systems.

It is like saying that we cannot have engines with more than 1000HP when we do not know how to build an engine with more than 1000HP.

It does not mean that there is an upper limit to speed. We only do not know how to make it happen. If we could bend space - or warp it - then we could travel faster by using only a propulsion system that is slower than light. This is the idea behind warp drives.

Stargates are another fictional transport system, which avoids the speed of light limit. It is based on the idea that we travel by transporting the information of us rather than our physical representation, meaning, your body. For this to become possible do we however need to find a way to transport information faster than light.

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Whitehound
#445 - 2012-04-10 16:41:46 UTC
Tsadkiel wrote:
yes actually! water has many interesting properties and the two most important for the effects i think you are referring to is the fact that it is an incompressible fluid and that it expands when it freezes. a good example of the former is something that some friends of mine and i did as undergrads. we decided to try and shatter a Nalgene bottle! after several attempts, all of which failed, we eventually succeeded by filling the bottle completely with water (as little air inside as possible) and dropping off an eleven story building XD the bottle deformed when it hit the ground, but the water inside was incompressible, so its volume stayed approximately constant. the resulting pressure differential shattered the bottle :3 freezing water is a major erosive force on the earth because it expands (a property observed in only a select few materials)! again, because the fluid is incompressible we might have been able to break the bottle filled with water by freezing it as well!

there may be a number of reasons why your experiment failed. the most likely may be the presence of air in the bottle. unlike water, air is extremely compressible and if it is present in the bottle, then it will simply compress as the water freezes. the second reason may be the type of bottle used. many plastic bottles are designed with their ductility in mind, and your bottle may have simply stretched under the expanding force of the water.

hope this helps!

Boring!

In my 5th or 6th grade did we fill a cast iron ball with water and sealed it with a thick screw. When we froze the cast iron ball did the freezing water burst it.

Nalgene bottles, really?!? Roll

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#446 - 2012-04-10 17:04:03 UTC
so now you aren't even trying to hide the fact that you're trolling -_- great.
Whitehound
#447 - 2012-04-10 17:10:02 UTC
Tsadkiel wrote:
so now you aren't even trying to hide the fact that you're trolling -_- great.

I am not the one who seeks recognition in an off-topic forum for being a particle astrophysicists.

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#448 - 2012-04-10 17:12:07 UTC  |  Edited by: Tsadkiel
Quote:
I am not the one who seeks recognition in an off-topic forum for being a particle astrophysicists.


the goal of this thread was to get better at writing and talking about physics for people who don't necessarily have the background. i'm really bad at it and i mentioned this goal right in my first post :( i'm not trying to get recognition for anything... this is supposed to be an exercise...
Whitehound
#449 - 2012-04-10 17:14:31 UTC  |  Edited by: Whitehound
Tsadkiel wrote:
the goal of this thread was to get better at writing and talking about physics for people who don't necessarily have the background. i'm really bad at it and i mentioned this goal right in my first post :( i'm not trying to get recognition for anything... this is supposed to be an exercise...

I know, but you are also bad at accepting a lesson or two. Maybe try not to cave in too quickly?

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#450 - 2012-04-10 18:34:25 UTC
in any case, a call for more questions! =D
Mister LEM0NS
Deep Core Mining Inc.
Caldari State
#451 - 2012-04-10 23:03:38 UTC
I believe I heard this one from the science channel. The belief is that faster than light travel is possible and our assumptions are that it would literally be easier to move space itself rather than the vehicle.

So how would untold ammounts of ships (all fitted for 'warp' travel) effect the universe if theyre all sporadicly tugging everything in all directions at basicly the same time? Sounds like kids fighting over a blanket, only you know, there isnt a winner...
Bane Necran
Appono Astos
#452 - 2012-04-10 23:16:37 UTC
Have you done any research into the electrical model of the universe, and if so, what do you think about it?

"In the void is virtue, and no evil. Wisdom has existence, principle has existence, the Way has existence, spirit is nothingness." ~Miyamoto Musashi

Nylith Empyreal
Sutar Rein
#453 - 2012-04-10 23:18:39 UTC  |  Edited by: Nylith Empyreal
Alright, I have one, though I suspect this to be more of a mathematics thing. But hopefully you can answer or perhaps someone else.. Why is the imaginary number system in relation to i = square root of -1 versus i = - , I've been trying to wrap my head around this, I understand the system as it is. But a philosophical and real life application seems to be out of my understanding. Isn't a negative number in itself imaginary, and simply a owe'd / wanted existing number of something. Like 5 - 8 doesn't work unless you add (-) to the equation which we can simply say is multiplied by a -1, meaning the answer -3 is actually (-1)(3) as it gives an ethereal answer to something that simply doesn't exist.

To delve further the negative sign itself is a symbol of imagination as there isn't -6 cars irl, it's simply a lack of or a want of 6 cars. To go further. To solve say square root -25 we change it to square root 25 x (-1) and get to 5 x square root -1 which we define as 5i, but couldn't it be that square root -1 is the same as square root 1 x -1 and continue on perpetually? To which case the only thing that makes it true is a single -1 or perhaps an opposite 1 x -1, as 1 x 1 = 1, -1 x -1 = 1, and 1 x -1 = -1, why isn't there say 1 x -1 = 1? or like x^2 = -25 (5^2i) it would be such that it's simply the same as -(5^2) thus the i is unneeded as the negative itself is imaginary? Wouldn't it be basically mean that whenever a number interacts with a negative number it always become a negative, and whenever an negative interacts with a negative it turns into an opposite. Thus the equation x^2 = -25 is wrong x^2 = 25 and x can be either - or + and the equation -25 = x^2 is written -25 = -(x^2) with aboslutely no need for (i) as the negative is imaginary. It's like saying 5 = 8 because 5(i) = 8 I can make up something up too Ugh

I guess I'm trying to figure out the fault in my logic and would like a better explanation of this system as it as itself seems to be a different take of an already existing system in which it's purpose has no real application versus a negative as a representation of an imaginary number? Sorry if this is completely on a different title


But in regards to something like divide by 0, which isn't it simply the interaction of a (I forget the term) whole(?) number with 'nothing'? if you add nothing all you have is the same thing that you started with or minus nothing same thing. However when we multiply by nothing the whole number no longer exists, why? and why is it out of bounds to say division by nothing is nothing, generally multiplication and division are inverse to one another correct? If multiplication is # by sets of this # and division is # into segments of this #. What is the true need and limitation of dividing by 0


I hope this doesn't sound too confusing, I'm trying to wrap my head of the purpose of these two systems, as I'm going to call it , as zero interacts with numbers in a rather bizzare fashion that seems completely made up in a way the negatives / imaginary numbers work? If it is, I would try to best reformat as i can, but truly I'm failing to see their functions or motions to be complicated or merit of existence.

Who's the more foolish the fool or the fool who replies to him?

Whitehound
#454 - 2012-04-11 04:07:22 UTC
Nylith Empyreal wrote:
I hope this doesn't sound too confusing, I'm trying to wrap my head of the purpose of these two systems, as I'm going to call it , as zero interacts with numbers in a rather bizzare fashion that seems completely made up in a way the negatives / imaginary numbers work? If it is, I would try to best reformat as i can, but truly I'm failing to see their functions or motions to be complicated or merit of existence.

I cannot give you a good answer. Complex numbers exist to describe two-dimensional problems and you should not try to understand them in a one- and n-dimensional context.

Assume for a minute you had a one problem like a > b. You can transform this problem with a strictly monotonic function and everything is still in order. If a > b is true so would a^2 > b^2 and as long as a and b are positive. If you use an alternating function like the sine or cosine function instead then it would transform your problem into an alternating problem where at one point a > b and at another a < b. It is likely not what you would want, but create a new problem when things begin to alternate.

Complex numbers can be used to describe alternating problems. While a real number multiplied with 1 stays the same will a complex number begin to rotate when multiplied with i. So instead of having to describe a problem with sine and cosine functions can one reduce the math into a simpler notation. Adding two complex numbers together then is the same as adding two 2-dimensonal vectors together. Multiplying two complex numbers with one another is the same as adding the angles and multiplying the lengths of two 2-dimensional vectors.

Philosophically are complex numbers not more than a tool. There is not more beauty in math with complex numbers than there already is in math with real numbers. Complex numbers are merely being the prettier ones and if all the real numbers were ponies then complex numbers would be like trick ponies that can wiggle their tail like a propeller, but you would not go ZOMG, trick ponies!! on them, especially after you have seen other ponies before.

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Nylith Empyreal
Sutar Rein
#455 - 2012-04-11 14:11:55 UTC  |  Edited by: Nylith Empyreal
I see, so it's just a function that gives us the answers to multiple dimensions on multiple coordinates on a plane that would otherwise be untrue in regards to the real number system, but said system cant acocunt for it even though it is 'there' am I reading that right?

Thanks again. if anyone else has more light to shed I would love more explanations. Big smile

Who's the more foolish the fool or the fool who replies to him?

Whitehound
#456 - 2012-04-11 16:08:26 UTC
Nylith Empyreal wrote:
I see, so it's just a function that gives us the answers to multiple dimensions on multiple coordinates on a plane that would otherwise be untrue in regards to the real number system, but said system cant acocunt for it even though it is 'there' am I reading that right?

Thanks again. if anyone else has more light to shed I would love more explanations. Big smile

Yes. It was placed there intentionally to work like a doorstop for the human brain. Mostly it is engineers and physicists who use them. Their brains would have come undone otherwise if they had to use only trigonometric functions and were not allowed to imagine things. And I cannot blame them. Complex numbers do make a few things easier. I.e. in electrical engineering, where electricity is generated by rotating electromagnetic fields and as a result does the electricity alternate. Complex numbers let you specify electrical currents with their amplitude and their phase shift and one can continue to use the existing formulas for discrete currents and does not have to work with the trigonometric functions all the time. Work is still defined as W=V*A for example.

Loss is meaningful. Therefore is the loss of meaning likewise meaningful. It is the source of all trolling.

Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#457 - 2012-04-11 19:39:09 UTC
Nylith Empyreal wrote:
Alright, I have one, though I suspect this to be more of a mathematics thing. But hopefully you can answer or perhaps someone else.. Why is the imaginary number system in relation to i = square root of -1 versus i = - , I've been trying to wrap my head around this, I understand the system as it is. But a philosophical and real life application seems to be out of my understanding. Isn't a negative number in itself imaginary, and simply a owe'd / wanted existing number of something. Like 5 - 8 doesn't work unless you add (-) to the equation which we can simply say is multiplied by a -1, meaning the answer -3 is actually (-1)(3) as it gives an ethereal answer to something that simply doesn't exist.

To delve further the negative sign itself is a symbol of imagination as there isn't -6 cars irl, it's simply a lack of or a want of 6 cars. To go further. To solve say square root -25 we change it to square root 25 x (-1) and get to 5 x square root -1 which we define as 5i, but couldn't it be that square root -1 is the same as square root 1 x -1 and continue on perpetually? To which case the only thing that makes it true is a single -1 or perhaps an opposite 1 x -1, as 1 x 1 = 1, -1 x -1 = 1, and 1 x -1 = -1, why isn't there say 1 x -1 = 1? or like x^2 = -25 (5^2i) it would be such that it's simply the same as -(5^2) thus the i is unneeded as the negative itself is imaginary? Wouldn't it be basically mean that whenever a number interacts with a negative number it always become a negative, and whenever an negative interacts with a negative it turns into an opposite. Thus the equation x^2 = -25 is wrong x^2 = 25 and x can be either - or + and the equation -25 = x^2 is written -25 = -(x^2) with aboslutely no need for (i) as the negative is imaginary. It's like saying 5 = 8 because 5(i) = 8 I can make up something up too Ugh

I guess I'm trying to figure out the fault in my logic and would like a better explanation of this system as it as itself seems to be a different take of an already existing system in which it's purpose has no real application versus a negative as a representation of an imaginary number? Sorry if this is completely on a different title


But in regards to something like divide by 0, which isn't it simply the interaction of a (I forget the term) whole(?) number with 'nothing'? if you add nothing all you have is the same thing that you started with or minus nothing same thing. However when we multiply by nothing the whole number no longer exists, why? and why is it out of bounds to say division by nothing is nothing, generally multiplication and division are inverse to one another correct? If multiplication is # by sets of this # and division is # into segments of this #. What is the true need and limitation of dividing by 0


I hope this doesn't sound too confusing, I'm trying to wrap my head of the purpose of these two systems, as I'm going to call it , as zero interacts with numbers in a rather bizzare fashion that seems completely made up in a way the negatives / imaginary numbers work? If it is, I would try to best reformat as i can, but truly I'm failing to see their functions or motions to be complicated or merit of existence.



right, so there are a couple of things here, but the major point i want to make here is that mathematics is simply an extension of logic. The Conclusion Follows The Premise. and while this aspect of mathematics is absolutely fundamental to our universe, the nomenclature is not. we have DEFINED imaginary numbers to be a specific thing. they are no more or less imaginary than the characters "3" or "i". what they represent is what's important, not what they are called. in fact they are usually referred to by those who work with them as Complex numbers, and there is a whole field devoted to studying their properties called Complex Analysis.

the numbers that we are most familiar with are Natural Numbers. these are only the positive integers. we have 6 apples, or 1 troll, or 20 rifters etc... Complex numbers are entirely separate from these. they do not manifest directly in nature in the same way as -6 cars are no where to be found, but just as we may use -6 cars to say "you owe me 6 cars" we can use complex numbers to make mathematical statements that might otherwise be impossible with only naturals.

Complex numbers are commonly used in the description of oscillations, as anyone who as done AC circuit analysis can attest.

you are absolutely welcome to make up whatever you choose! the important thing is that you follow your initial premise to its logical conclusions. dividing by zero is just not allowed in "usual" algebra because it lets you do crazy things like proving 1=2 and such. you could, if you wanted to, create a mathematical system where division by zero is well defined, but this wont be algebra as most of us know it. there are many types of algebra with many definitions that people "just made up" in order to help them describe specific mathematical situations. for example, one of these most famous "other" algebras is Grassman or Exterior algebra, which basically defines multiplication as being anti commutative, that a*b = -b*a. while this is not immediately useful in, say, making change, it is exceptionally useful in the description of the Cross Product and Outer Product on arbitrary vector spaces, or calculating commutation relations in quantum mechanics.

it all depends on what you want to do with the math i suppose. i'm really REALLY bad at abstract mathematics so i hope this response helped at least a little...


Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#458 - 2012-04-11 19:43:28 UTC
Bane Necran wrote:
Have you done any research into the electrical model of the universe, and if so, what do you think about it?


very very little when i was an undergraduate. the model is needlessly complex and completely fails to adequately describe things like universal gravitation or stellar evolution and the structure of HR diagrams :(
Tsadkiel
Aliastra
Gallente Federation
#459 - 2012-04-11 19:46:39 UTC
Mister LEM0NS wrote:
I believe I heard this one from the science channel. The belief is that faster than light travel is possible and our assumptions are that it would literally be easier to move space itself rather than the vehicle.

So how would untold ammounts of ships (all fitted for 'warp' travel) effect the universe if theyre all sporadicly tugging everything in all directions at basicly the same time? Sounds like kids fighting over a blanket, only you know, there isnt a winner...


i comment on possible FTL travel methods in post #260 on page 13 =D recent calculations on the methods which involve the distortion of space-time ahead of and behind the ship DO indicate that the effects could be locally devastating!
Pr1ncess Alia
Doomheim
#460 - 2012-04-13 04:12:49 UTC
Tsadkiel wrote:
Jeyson Vicious wrote:
I spent a good few hours the other weekend Googling how strong the power of freezing water is (I once heard it was an unstoppable force!). Did you ever see anything cool or amazing in school or a lab in that regard?

I tried to break a plastic water bottle in the freezer. It bloated quite a bit, but didn't bust.


yes actually! water has many interesting properties and the two most important for the effects i think you are referring to is the fact that it is an incompressible fluid and that it expands when it freezes. a good example of the former is something that some friends of mine and i did as undergrads. we decided to try and shatter a Nalgene bottle! after several attempts, all of which failed, we eventually succeeded by filling the bottle completely with water (as little air inside as possible) and dropping off an eleven story building XD the bottle deformed when it hit the ground, but the water inside was incompressible, so its volume stayed approximately constant. the resulting pressure differential shattered the bottle :3 freezing water is a major erosive force on the earth because it expands (a property observed in only a select few materials)! again, because the fluid is incompressible we might have been able to break the bottle filled with water by freezing it as well!

there may be a number of reasons why your experiment failed. the most likely may be the presence of air in the bottle. unlike water, air is extremely compressible and if it is present in the bottle, then it will simply compress as the water freezes. the second reason may be the type of bottle used. many plastic bottles are designed with their ductility in mind, and your bottle may have simply stretched under the expanding force of the water.

hope this helps!


What if I have a container strong enough to resist the force of the water attempting to expand?

Would the pressure itself keep the water from freezing (pressure does create heat) or can I achieve a container of super-cooled but not actually frozen water?